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Both Carl and Philip make good points. Carl's contribution is noting "uncertainty". Ricardian equivalence doesn't hold for, at least, two reasons: 1) the future is irreducibly uncertain, and 2) most people outside of finance and economics recognize this basic fact and thus heavily weight the present observable economic activity from employment-producing fiscal stimulus and assign very little weight to the distribution of possible future tax rates. Thus they don’t save their current earnings to pay the tax man. If you believe that people use future tax rates in their present consumption calculus, please provide me the probability distribution and parameters that they are using for their calculations. Technically, Keynes posited that inflation stimulates the economy by increasing people's expectations of the marginal efficiency of capital (i.e., the return on invested capital). When capital is plentiful the marginal efficiency is low and people are not motivated to invest it in new capital projects that employ people and resources. This leads to the similarity with Friedman. People compare the marginal efficiency of capital to the schedule of interest rates when they decide to invest (notice that marginal efficiency of capital is not always equal to the interest rate as Classical, Neo-Classical, Monetarists, Neo-Classical Keynesian Synthesis [in the long run] schools all assume). Thus, when the marginal efficiency of capital (return on invested capital) is greater than the interest rate people invest, when it's not they don't. So, there are 2 options, in general: raise the marginal efficiency of capital through boosting confidence ("animal spirits") and/or use an “exogenous” force to employ people to build capital (e.g., fiscal stimulus). Keynes also believed that you could lower the interest rate below the schedule of the marginal efficiency of capital by increasing the money supply as Friedman would advocate. However, Keynes believed this was inefficient because there is no substitute for money so as people demand more and more in uncertain times as they struggle to build a security blanket made of dollars big enough and they just let them sit in bank accounts, under mattresses, or in Treasuries (Keynes’s used the word “hoard”). This idle money cannot increase employment (Keynes's main goal for moral and economic reasons). This is exactly what we have seen--corporations haven't really invested and banks haven't lent (due to lack of willingness and now they claim lack of demand) thus it's left to the government to spend and increase employment. One might point to increases in the equity markets as a mechanism for saved money to go towards employment producing investment. But, remember that an overwhelming amount of money that has flowed to asset markets post the crisis was in the secondary markets and not primary issuance (e.g., IPOs). Thus, the money is simply trading hands based on past investments that employed people to build the products or provide the services of the businesses represented by the ownership stakes provided by stocks. Outside of employing people in the financial community, this “spending” doesn’t employ many people. This is why you see a tight labor market for people in finance and a weak market for construction workers.
Commented Apr 19, 2011 on
Can Keynesians be anti-Keynesian?
Can Keynesians be anti-Keynesian?
Follow any policy debate, and you are sure to find a list of economists who support or inspire those on both sides of the issue. In The Economist, we find some of those on the roster for the new Republican leadership in the House of Representatives, and why: "When Republicans proposed slashing ...
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