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The premise strikes me as clearly false -- see, e.g., not only the work of Aristotle but also that of Hume. I suspect that one could make it seem more plausible by stipulating a very specific definition of 'systematic theorizing in the natural sciences' and, therefore, by changing the comparison class. That said, my guess is that such efforts would begin to sound a bit like a seen from 'Fletch' -- "... well ... yes ... but the 'very end' was really sudden" -- but maybe I'm insufficiently optimistic on this issue.
Is "Secular Moral Theory" Really Relatively Young?
It is sometimes said (e.g., by Parfit, by Brink, and others) that "secular moral theory" is a relative new field compared to systematic theorizing in the natural sciences, so it is not surprising that there is more disagreement about ethical matters since we haven't had as much time (or made as ...
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