Bear with me, I'm struggling to work this out ... So, an ex-RAC employee commits a violent crime for which said ex-RAC employee is now criminally charged. That part seems clear enough. What seems less clear to me is why RAC's arbitration clause in its rental agreement has anything to do with this crime. Is the victim suing RAC for hiring a thug? Does the arbitration clause of the rental agreement prohibit the victim from civilly suing either the (ex)employee or employer for damages? Iow, is an arbitration clause basically the go-to way for any biz to shield itself from civil lawsuits? Even when criminal charges are involved? Make no mistake, I'm on the side of the victim here, assuming I must pick a side. But really, based on the info in this post and its links, I'm not at all clear what you think RAC's culpability is.

I can already envision the book: Awkward Silences: The Pathology of a Nation Laid Bare. And Screaming. ... Occasionally, one of the folks at Gawker posts a useful and weighty bit of insight and/or intel into current events and I'm compelled to ask myself, "Self, why aren't you reading Gawker regularly?" Ah yes. Now I remember why.