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NeilJEdmondson
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Great news! An marginal inequality of outcomes does not automagically prove racism! I know, I know, you're a blogger and merely inviting commentary by using torqued up language; still, it's a bit much.
I would have gone: "While Canada's electoral system obviously does not intentionally under-represent some groups, it unfortunately has that effect to a marginal degree." Racism is a big, big, grownup word, not to be casually tossed around like a frisbee, especially by an esteemed and accomplished academic such as yourself.
This, especially: "how much instutional racism is acceptable?" just reeks of flamebait. If you want to see some explicitly and intentionally racial gerrymandering then look to the USA, where the courts have forced legislatures to create "minority majority" districts so the votes of minorities aren't diluted by the majority (among other reasons); see for example en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gerrymandering#United_States and especially en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gerrymandering#Voting_Rights_Act_of_1965
It should also be noted for context that quite a few countries simply do not let immigrants (at least those who retain dual citizenship) vote: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right_of_foreigners_to_vote
Does Canada's Electoral System Under-Represent Minorities?
It is erroneously believed by some that the original U.S. constitution had a clause decreeing that a black man was "worth" only 60% of a white man. The three-fifths compromise, rather, was a mechanism for determining how slaves (not blacks, though in the 1770s only 8% of the black population we...
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Dec 16, 2010
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